Frederik160400

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These are questions asked by Frederik160400

Is it possible that the two-variable arctan function arctan(a(x),b(x)) could be could be equal to arctan(a(x)/b(x)) as long as x>0? And why?

arctan(a(x),b(x))=arctan(a(x)/b(x) as long as x>0 ?

Thank's for any replies :)

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