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These are replies submitted by Q190504

Thank @vv and @mmcdara for your help, I get it now.

@vv Due to my limited knowledge of linear algebra, after carefully studying your tutorial, I still don't understand why A^n = 1 + n*B + binomial(n,2)*B^2. Could you please explain more about that? Thank you so much!

@Rouben Rostamian  @Axel Vogt  @Mariusz Iwaniuk ​​​​​​​​I understood, thank you guys very much for your enthusiastic help.

@Mariusz Iwaniuk According to Maple, int (1 / ln(x), x = 1 .. infinity) is divergent. Therefore, the convergence of the original integral cannot be determined.

@Rouben Rostamian  Could you explain more about the reason for choosing g(x) = 1/ln x ? In my opinion, f(x) (original function) is always <= g(x) (x-> + infinity).

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